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Duration of Time

The total availability of time for the exam SSCP is 03 Hours. At this time candidates have to attempt all the given questions.

ISC System Security Certified Practitioner (SSCP) Sample Questions (Q192-Q197):

NEW QUESTION # 192
The viewing of recorded events after the fact using a closed-circuit TV camera is considered a

A. Compensating control
B. Preventative control.
C. Corrective control
D. Detective control

Answer: D

Explanation:
Detective security controls are like a burglar alarm. They detect and report an unauthorized or undesired event (or an attempted undesired event). Detective security controls are invoked after the undesirable event has occurred. Example detective security controls are log monitoring and review, system audit, file integrity checkers, and motion detection.
Visual surveillance or recording devices such as closed circuit television are used in conjunction with guards in order to enhance their surveillance ability and to record events for future analysis or prosecution.
When events are monitored, it is considered preventative whereas recording of events is considered detective in nature.
Below you have explanations of other types of security controls from a nice guide produce by James Purcell (see reference below):
Preventive security controls are put into place to prevent intentional or unintentional disclosure, alteration, or destruction (D.A.D.) of sensitive information. Some example preventive controls follow:
Policy -Unauthorized network connections are prohibited.
Firewall -Blocks unauthorized network connections.
Locked wiring closet -Prevents unauthorized equipment from being physically plugged into a network switch.
Notice in the preceding examples that preventive controls crossed administrative, technical, and physical categories discussed previously. The same is true for any of the controls discussed in this section.
Corrective security controls are used to respond to and fix a security incident. Corrective security controls also limit or reduce further damage from an attack. Examples follow:
Procedure to clean a virus from an infected system
A guard checking and locking a door left unlocked by a careless employee Updating firewall rules to block an attacking IP address Note that in many cases the corrective security control is triggered by a detective security control.
Recovery security controls are those controls that put a system back into production after an incident. Most Disaster Recovery activities fall into this category. For example, after a disk failure, data is restored from a backup tape.
Directive security controls are the equivalent of administrative controls. Directive controls direct that some action be taken to protect sensitive organizational information. The directive can be in the form of a policy, procedure, or guideline.
Deterrent security controls are controls that discourage security violations. For instance,
"Unauthorized Access Prohibited" signage may deter a trespasser from entering an area. The presence of security cameras might deter an employee from stealing equipment. A policy that states access to servers is monitored could deter unauthorized access.
Compensating security controls are controls that provide an alternative to normal controls that cannot be used for some reason. For instance, a certain server cannot have antivirus software installed because it interferes with a critical application. A compensating control would be to increase monitoring of that server or isolate that server on its own network segment.
Note that there is a third popular taxonomy developed by NIST and described in NIST Special Publication 800-53, "Recommended Security Controls for Federal Information Systems." NIST categorizes security controls into 3 classes and then further categorizes the controls within the classes into 17 families. Within each security control family are dozens of specific controls. The NIST taxonomy is not covered on the CISSP exam but is one the CISSP should be aware of if you are employed within the US federal workforce.

NEW QUESTION # 193
Which of the following are REGISTERED PORTS as defined by IANA ?

A. Ports 1024 to 49151
B. Ports 1025 to 65535
C. Ports 128 to 255
D. Ports 1024 to 32767

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Ports 1024 to 49151 has been defined as REGISTERED PORTS by IANA.
A registered port is a network port (a sub-address defined within the Internet Protocol, in the range 1-
65535) assigned by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) (or by Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN) before March 21, 2001) for use with a certain protocol or application.
Ports with numbers lower than those of the registered ports are called well known ports; ports with numbers greater than those of the registered ports are called dynamic and/or private ports.
Ports 0-1023 - well known ports
Ports 1024-49151 - Registered port: vendors use for applications
Ports >49151 - dynamic / private ports
The other answers are not correct
Reference(s) used for this question:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Registered_port

NEW QUESTION # 194
To be admissible in court, computer evidence must be which of the following?

A. Decrypted
B. Relevant
C. Edited
D. Incriminating

Answer: B

Explanation:
Before any evidence can be admissible in court, the evidence has to be relevant, material to the issue, and it must be presented in compliance with the rules of evidence. This holds true for computer evidence as well.
While there are no absolute means to ensure that evidence will be allowed and helpful in a court of law, information security professionals should understand the basic rules of evidence. Evidence should be relevant, authentic, accurate, complete, and convincing. Evidence gathering should emphasize these criteria.
As stated in CISSP for Dummies:
Because computer-generated evidence can sometimes be easily manipulated, altered , or tampered with, and because it's not easily and commonly understood, this type of evidence is usually considered suspect in a court of law. In order to be admissible, evidence must be
Relevant: It must tend to prove or disprove facts that are relevant and material to the case.
Reliable: It must be reasonably proven that what is presented as evidence is what was originally collected and that the evidence itself is reliable. This is accomplished, in part, through proper evidence handling and the chain of custody. (We discuss this in the upcoming section "Chain of custody and the evidence life cycle.")
Legally permissible: It must be obtained through legal means. Evidence that's not legally permissible may include evidence obtained through the following means:
Illegal search and seizure: Law enforcement personnel must obtain a prior court order; however, non-law enforcement personnel, such as a supervisor or system administrator, may be able to conduct an authorized search under some circumstances.
Illegal wiretaps or phone taps: Anyone conducting wiretaps or phone taps must obtain a prior court order.
Entrapment or enticement: Entrapment encourages someone to commit a crime that the individual may have had no intention of committing. Conversely, enticement lures someone toward certain evidence (a honey pot, if you will) after that individual has already committed a crime. Enticement is not necessarily illegal but does raise certain ethical arguments and may not be admissible in court.
Coercion: Coerced testimony or confessions are not legally permissible.
Unauthorized or improper monitoring: Active monitoring must be properly authorized and conducted in a standard manner; users must be notified that they may be subject to monitoring.
The following answers are incorrect:
decrypted. Is incorrect because evidence has to be relevant, material to the issue, and it must be presented in compliance with the rules of evidence.
edited. Is incorrect because evidence has to be relevant, material to the issue, and it must be presented in compliance with the rules of evidence. Edited evidence violates the rules of evidence.
incriminating. Is incorrect because evidence has to be relevant, material to the issue, and it must be presented in compliance with the rules of evidence.
Reference(s) used for this question:
CISSP STudy Guide (Conrad, Misenar, Feldman) Elsevier. 2012. Page 423
and Mc Graw Hill, Shon Harris CISSP All In One (AIO), 6th Edition , Pages 1051-1056 and CISSP for Dummies , Peter Gregory

NEW QUESTION # 195
What is called the type of access control where there are pairs of elements that have the least upper bound of values and greatest lower bound of values?

A. Discretionary model
B. Mandatory model
C. Lattice model
D. Rule model

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Access Control
Explanation/Reference:
In a lattice model, there are pairs of elements that have the least upper bound of values and greatest lower bound of values.
Reference(s) used for this question:
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 34.

NEW QUESTION # 196
Which authentication technique best protects against hijacking?

A. Static authentication
B. Continuous authentication
C. Strong authentication
D. Robust authentication

Answer: B

Explanation:
A continuous authentication provides protection against impostors who can see, alter, and insert information passed between the claimant and verifier even after the claimant/verifier authentication is complete. This is the best protection against hijacking. Static authentication is the type of authentication provided by traditional password schemes and the strength of the authentication is highly dependent on the difficulty of guessing passwords. The robust authentication mechanism relies on dynamic authentication data that changes with each authenticated session between a claimant and a verifier, and it does not protect against hijacking.
Strong authentication refers to a two-factor authentication (like something a user knows and something a user is).

NEW QUESTION # 197
......

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