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CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 Sample Questions (Q52-Q57):

NEW QUESTION # 52
A support specialist needs to decide whether to install a 32-bit or 64-bit OS architecture on a new computer. Which of the following specifications will help the specialist determine which OS architecture to use?

A. 1Gbps Ethernet
B. Intel i7 CPU
C. 16GB RAM
D. 500GB HDD

Answer: B

Explanation:
The CPU's architecture determines whether it can run a 64-bit OS. Most Intel i7 processors are
64-bit capable, whereas simply knowing the amount of RAM (e.g., 16 GB) doesn't guarantee the processor supports 64-bit operations. Once you confirm the CPU is 64-bit (as with an Intel i7), you can install a 64-bit OS to fully utilize available memory.

NEW QUESTION # 53
A technician inspects the following workstation configuration:

The workstation is unable to open any external websites. The browser displays an error message that says that the site cannot be reached.

A. The workstation IP address is incorrect.
B. The default gateway is not set.
C. The wrong DNS suffix is assigned.
D. The subnet mask is incorrect

Answer: B

Explanation:
The correct answer is C. The default gateway is not set, and this is clearly indicated by the ipconfig output showing the Default Gateway: 0.0.0.0. In TCP/IP networking, the default gateway is the router address that allows a workstation to communicate with networks outside its local subnet, including the internet. Without a valid default gateway, a device can only communicate with other devices on the same local network.
According to the Quentin Docter - CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, a missing or incorrect default gateway is one of the most common causes of a system being unable to access external resources. The guide explains that when a destination IP address is outside the local subnet, the workstation forwards the traffic to the default gateway. If no gateway is defined, the traffic has nowhere to go and is dropped.
The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz - CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide reinforces that an IP address such as 10.203.10.22 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 is valid for internal communication. The DNS suffix comptia.org is also not responsible for routing failures. DNS resolves names to IP addresses, but routing still requires a gateway.
The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual further clarifies that a subnet mask error would prevent even local communication, which is not indicated here. Because only external websites are unreachable, the absence of a default gateway is the definitive root cause.

NEW QUESTION # 54
An individual is observed standing behind a user at a public terminal and watching as the user enters their login credentials. Which of the following best describes this type of attack?

A. Social engineering
B. Evil twin
C. Brute-force
D. Zero-day

Answer: A

Explanation:
Shoulder surfing is explicitly categorized as a social engineering technique because it relies on human behavior and observation rather than exploiting software flaws or cracking passwords through computation.
Quentin Docter defines it directly: " Another form of social engineering is known as shoulder surfing. It involves nothing more than watching someone when they enter their sensitive data ," such as a password or credit card number. Docter also notes that privacy filters can reduce viewing angles, but " privacy filters do not protect you as you are entering a password, since a shoulder surfer will watch your keystrokes ," and the best defense is to "survey your environment before entering personal data." The Mike Meyers Lab Manual reinforces the same classification: " Shoulder surfing is another technique for gathering information and gaining unauthorized access... observing someone's screen or keyboard to get information, often passwords ." Since this is about manipulating or exploiting a person's situation (being nearby, watching, taking advantage of inattentiveness), it is not a zero-day, evil twin, or brute-force method.
Therefore, Social engineering (C) is correct.

NEW QUESTION # 55
An administrator requires information about a server to identify the product owner and whether it has any business-critical services. Which of the following can the administrator refer to in order to find this information?

A. SOP
B. SLA
C. EULA
D. CMDB

Answer: D

Explanation:
A CMDB (Configuration Management Database) contains details about IT assets, including product ownership and business-critical service status.

NEW QUESTION # 56
A user reports some single sign-on errors to a help desk technician. Currently, the user is able to sign in to the company ' s application portal but cannot access a specific SaaS-based tool. Which of the following would the technician most likely suggest as a next step?

A. Bypass single sign-on by directly authenticating to the application
B. Reset the device being used to factory defaults
C. Use a private browsing window to avoid local session conflicts
D. Reenroll the user ' s mobile device to be used as an MFA token

Answer: C

Explanation:
SSO issues are often related to cached session data, cookies, or browser artifacts. The fact that the user can access the company portal but not one specific SaaS tool suggests a session or token problem. Using a private
/incognito browsing window allows a clean session to be initiated, which often resolves SSO conflicts.
A). Reenrolling MFA is not related unless access issues stem from failed multifactor authentication.
C). Bypassing SSO may not be possible depending on the SaaS tool and company policies.
D). Factory resetting a device is a last resort and unnecessary in this case.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 3.3: Troubleshoot common software, application, and OS security issues.
Study Guide Section: Troubleshooting login and authentication issues, especially with SSO services.

NEW QUESTION # 57
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